April 26, 2013
I am not sure if I'm doing the math correctly.
Pokerstars.fr has a lot of progressive super knockout tournaments running.
Let's take a 5€ for example: 2.30 € go into the prize pool and 2.30 € are on you as a bounty, 40ct rake. Starting stack is 1500.
Now I assume your 1500 chips are worth 2.30€, therefore the bounty2.30€ should convert to 1500c as well (-> 1500c/2.3 = 652), so we have a value of 652 chips for 1€. Am I correct so far?
The actual calculation becomes a little tricky now, because this would be the correct value ONLY if we win the tournament and then our own bounty. Otherwise we would only get half the value of chips for 1€-bounty because the other half is added to our “bounty-pool” and not worth anything to us. So the immediate chipvalue for 1€ should be 652/2 = 376 chips, is this thinking correct?
I am not certain if my though-process may be flawed, so I'd like to here some input from you guys. Thanks.
April 27, 2014
I know this is an old thread but…
Take a look at my comments on …..kos-part-2
I have just referenced this there too:
…..s-1495643/
Aaron Brown generally knows what he is talking about when it comes to this stuff, but I think he misses my point in the video's comments.
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